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Thursday, 12 November 2026 · New Delhi

The Daily Brief · 12 November 2026

The Daily Brief: AI Talks, Climate Stakes, Court Calls

The day's news, filtered for the syllabus. What happened, why it matters for the exam, and exactly where it sits in the GS papers.

12 November 2026 | UPSC Current Affairs
By the RaahUPSC editorial desk12 November 202618 stories · 10 min read

GS Paper I

  1. Three ancient manuscripts enter UNESCO's Asia-Pacific Memory register

    Must know

    GS-1

    Why in News?

    Manuscripts of the Mahabharata, the Arthashastra and the Rajatarangini have been inscribed on UNESCO's Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register. The decision came at the 11th session of the regional committee in Jakarta, Indonesia.

    The birch-bark Mahabharata manuscript is held at the Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute, Pune; Kautilya's Arthashastra palm-leaf manuscript at the Oriental Research Institute, Mysuru; and Kalhana's 12th-century Rajatarangini at the Oriental Research Library in Srinagar. The Memory of the World programme, launched in 1992, protects documentary heritage; the Asia-Pacific register covers 43 countries and is coordinated in India by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts, the nodal institution since 2014.

    the three manuscripts and their repositories; MOWCAP; the 2024 inscriptions - Ramcharitamanas, Panchatantra and Sahrdayaloka-Locana.

    documentary heritage as soft power and the institutional architecture of manuscript conservation.

    The inscription of the Mahabharata, Arthashastra and Rajatarangini manuscripts on UNESCO's Memory of the World register puts documentary heritage in the spotlight. Discuss documentary heritage as an instrument of soft power, and assess the institutional architecture of manuscript conservation in India. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2008

      Manuscripts of which one of the following have recently been included in UNESCO's Memory of the World Register? (a) Abhidhamma Pitaka (b) Mahabharata (c) Ramayana (d) Rig-Veda

    Frequently Asked Questions

    Which three manuscripts were inscribed, and where are they held?

    Manuscripts of the Mahabharata, the Arthashastra and the Rajatarangini have been inscribed on UNESCO's Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register. The birch-bark Mahabharata manuscript is held at the Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute, Pune; Kautilya's Arthashastra palm-leaf manuscript at the Oriental Research Institute, Mysuru; and Kalhana's 12th-century Rajatarangini at the Oriental Research Library in Srinagar.

    What is the Memory of the World programme?

    The Memory of the World programme, launched in 1992, protects documentary heritage; the Asia-Pacific register covers 43 countries and is coordinated in India by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts, the nodal institution since 2014. The decision came at the 11th session of the regional committee in Jakarta, Indonesia. The 2024 inscriptions were Ramcharitamanas, Panchatantra and Sahrdayaloka-Locana.

    How does the Memory of the World register differ from UNESCO's World Heritage List?

    The Memory of the World programme protects documentary heritage such as manuscripts, while the World Heritage List, created under the 1972 World Heritage Convention, covers sites. UNESCO itself was founded on 16 November 1945, is headquartered in Paris, and has 194 member states.

  2. Bihar's Ranivas Mound declared a site of national importance

    GS-1

    Why in News?

    The Centre has declared Ranivas Mound in East Champaran, Bihar, an archaeological site of national importance through a central government notification. The 1.63-acre site near the Kesariya stupa will now receive central protection.

    Alexander Cunningham, the first director-general of the Archaeological Survey of India, visited the mound in 1861 and reported an old Buddhist establishment with a temple enshrining a huge image of the Buddha. Sites of national importance are declared under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.

    the AMASR Act, 1958; ASI, established in 1861 under Cunningham; the Kesariya stupa.

    the Buddhist archaeology of the Champaran region and how central protection changes a site's conservation and funding.

    Ranivas Mound near the Kesariya stupa has been declared a site of national importance. Discuss the Buddhist archaeology of the Champaran region and how central protection changes a site's conservation, funding and public profile. (250 words)

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What is Ranivas Mound, and what has changed for it?

    Ranivas Mound in East Champaran, Bihar, has been declared an archaeological site of national importance through a central government notification. The 1.63-acre site near the Kesariya stupa will now receive central protection.

    What is the historical significance of the mound?

    Alexander Cunningham, the first director-general of the Archaeological Survey of India, visited the mound in 1861 and reported an old Buddhist establishment with a temple enshrining a huge image of the Buddha.

    Under what law are sites of national importance declared?

    Sites of national importance are declared under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. The Archaeological Survey of India itself was established in 1861 under Cunningham.

  3. Yuge Yugeen Bharat: Cabinet clears Rs 3,230 crore national museum

    GS-1

    Why in News?

    The Union Cabinet has approved turning the century-old North and South Block complex in New Delhi into the Yuge Yugeen Bharat Museum at a cost of Rs 3,230 crore. Announced in May 2023, the project will be built in phases over five years, with completion targeted for 2030-31 and the first gallery, 'Adornment', opening within about a year.

    The museum will reuse the 1.78 lakh sq m complex through adaptive reuse, preserving its heritage character. About 1.8 million objects have been identified from the National Museum, Culture Ministry museums, 52 ASI site museums and state and private collections. Galleries will cover architecture and cityscapes, mathematics and astronomy, languages and scripts, faith and spirituality, and trade and ideas. The Culture Ministry says it will have the largest display area of any museum in the world and handle over one crore visitors a year.

    Yuge Yugeen Bharat, the North and South Blocks, adaptive reuse.

    museums as instruments of cultural diplomacy and the politics of repurposing seats of government as public institutions.

    The North and South Blocks, seats of government for a century, are to become the Yuge Yugeen Bharat museum. Examine museums as instruments of cultural diplomacy, and discuss the politics and practical challenges of repurposing seats of government as public institutions. (250 words)

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What is the Yuge Yugeen Bharat museum project?

    The Union Cabinet has approved turning the century-old North and South Block complex in New Delhi into the Yuge Yugeen Bharat Museum at a cost of Rs 3,230 crore. Announced in May 2023, the project will be built in phases over five years, with completion targeted for 2030-31 and the first gallery, 'Adornment', opening within about a year.

    What will the museum display, and how large is its collection?

    The museum will reuse the 1.78 lakh sq m complex through adaptive reuse, preserving its heritage character. About 1.8 million objects have been identified from the National Museum, Culture Ministry museums, 52 ASI site museums and state and private collections. Galleries will cover architecture and cityscapes, mathematics and astronomy, languages and scripts, faith and spirituality, and trade and ideas.

    How big is the museum expected to be?

    The Culture Ministry says it will have the largest display area of any museum in the world and handle over one crore visitors a year.

  4. 4,000-year-old red ochre rock paintings found in Tamil Nadu

    GS-1

    Why in News?

    Rock paintings in red ochre, believed to be around 4,000 years old, have been discovered at Karadimalai in Ottampattu Thandari village, Villupuram district, Tamil Nadu.

    Red ochre is a natural earth pigment made largely of iron oxide, ranging from yellow to deep red, and among the earliest pigments used by humans - for body and face painting, cave drawings and ritual burials. Its chemical stability has preserved colours for tens of thousands of years, from the Lascaux caves in France to the Bhimbetka rock shelters in India.

    red ochre (iron oxide), Bhimbetka; rock-art chronology.

    prehistoric art in peninsular India and what new finds add to the map of early human expression.

    A 4,000-year-old red ochre rock painting site has been found at Karadimalai in Tamil Nadu. Discuss what prehistoric art in peninsular India reveals about early human expression, and what new finds add to the map of India's prehistoric past. (250 words)

    • UPPCS Prelims 2020

      Which of the following Indian archaeologists first visited the Bhimbetka caves and recognised the prehistoric significance of its rock paintings? (a) Madho Swaroop Vatsa (b) H.D. Sankalia (c) V.S. Wakankar (d) V.N. Mishra

    Frequently Asked Questions

    Where were the rock paintings found, and how old are they believed to be?

    Rock paintings in red ochre, believed to be around 4,000 years old, have been discovered at Karadimalai in Ottampattu Thandari village, Villupuram district, Tamil Nadu.

    What is red ochre, and why has it survived so long?

    Red ochre is a natural earth pigment made largely of iron oxide, ranging from yellow to deep red, and among the earliest pigments used by humans, for body and face painting, cave drawings and ritual burials. Its chemical stability has preserved colours for tens of thousands of years, from the Lascaux caves in France to the Bhimbetka rock shelters in India.

    Why do new rock-art finds matter for Indian prehistory?

    Each new find adds to the map of early human expression in peninsular India, extending the known geography of prehistoric art beyond well-known sites such as Bhimbetka.

GS Paper II

  1. US and China to open a 'superintelligence' dialogue at the APEC summit

    Must know

    GS-2

    Why in News?

    US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent said on November 10 that the United States and China should be clear-eyed about their differences on artificial intelligence even as they cooperate to manage its risks. Bessent travels to China next week for President Donald Trump's third meeting this year with President Xi Jinping, on the sidelines of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation leaders' summit in Shenzhen on November 18-19.

    The meeting will advance a new bilateral dialogue on 'superintelligence', with exchanges on evaluating and testing advanced models before release, keeping human judgment firmly in command, and a direct channel to alert each other to serious AI incidents - an alert system the two leaders agreed at their White House meeting in September. Bessent also pointed to a 'Board of Trade' for mutual tariff cuts on $30 billion of non-sensitive goods in each direction, and a 'Board of Investment' for market access, reiterating that the American objective is to 'de-risk, not to decouple' from trade with China.

    APEC was established in 1989 and has 21 member economies; the Shenzhen summit runs November 18-19, 2026, and a fourth Trump-Xi meeting is expected in December at the US-hosted G20 summit in Miami.

    great-power competition over frontier AI, the emerging architecture of AI safety governance, and India's stake as a third pole in setting norms on model testing and incident alerts.

    Frontier AI is becoming a theatre of great-power competition even as the US and China open a dialogue on 'superintelligence'. Examine the emerging architecture of AI safety governance, and assess India's stake and options as a third pole in setting norms on model testing and incident alerts. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2016

      Consider these claims: 1. The New Development Bank was set up by APEC. 2. The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai. Which of the claims given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What is the new US-China 'superintelligence' dialogue announced ahead of the APEC summit?

    It is a bilateral dialogue on advanced AI, to be advanced when President Donald Trump meets President Xi Jinping on the sidelines of the APEC leaders' summit in Shenzhen on November 18-19, 2026. It will cover evaluating and testing advanced models before release, keeping human judgment in command, and a direct channel to alert each other to serious AI incidents, an alert system the two leaders agreed at their White House meeting in September.

    What did US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent say about the US approach to trade with China?

    Bessent, who travels to China next week for Trump's third meeting this year with Xi, said the American objective is to 'de-risk, not to decouple' from trade with China. He also pointed to a 'Board of Trade' for mutual tariff cuts on $30 billion of non-sensitive goods in each direction, and a 'Board of Investment' for market access.

    What are the basic facts about APEC relevant to this summit?

    APEC was established in 1989 and has 21 member economies. The Shenzhen summit runs November 18-19, 2026, and a fourth Trump-Xi meeting is expected in December at the US-hosted G20 summit in Miami.

  2. Supreme Court reaffirms creamy-layer test: salary alone cannot decide

    Must know

    GS-2

    Why in News?

    On November 6 the Supreme Court reaffirmed its March 11 judgment that salary or income alone cannot determine creamy-layer status for OBC candidates whose parents work in public sector undertakings, private establishments, schools and other institutions - the status and category of the post must also be weighed. Around 140 OBC candidates stand to benefit, including 56 who were party to the cases decided in March.

    The government had rejected their OBC certificates, mostly since 2016, treating them as creamy layer because parental income crossed Rs 8 lakh a year; selections were rejected or ranks lowered and services re-allotted. Of 84 candidates tracked, 31 are children of government teachers, 26 of clerical staff and 22 of managerial staff in government organisations. At least 38 of the 56 are serving in lower-ranked services and would move up - some from the IPS to the IAS, for instance. Implementation would also unblock service allocation and training for the 958 candidates of the Civil Services Examination 2025 and 148 of the Indian Forest Service examination - the first time an entire CSE batch's foundation course and allocation were put on hold.

    the creamy-layer doctrine comes from Indra Sawhney (1992); the income ceiling for those outside government service was Rs 1 lakh in 1993 and stands at Rs 8 lakh since 2017.

    the tension between income-based and status-based tests for exclusion, social justice in service allocation, and how a judicial clarification ripples into recruitment timelines.

    The Supreme Court has held that salary alone cannot decide creamy-layer status for OBC candidates. Examine the tension between income-based and status-based tests for exclusion, and discuss how a judicial clarification of this kind ripples into recruitment timelines and service allocation. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2023

      Consider these statements: Statement I: The Supreme Court has held in some judgments that reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement II: Article 335 of the Constitution defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct? (a) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both Statements I and II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What did the Supreme Court reaffirm on November 6 about the creamy-layer test?

    It reaffirmed its March 11 judgment that salary or income alone cannot determine creamy-layer status for OBC candidates whose parents work in public sector undertakings, private establishments, schools and other institutions; the status and category of the post must also be weighed. Around 140 OBC candidates stand to benefit, including 56 who were party to the cases decided in March.

    How did the government's earlier approach affect the candidates?

    The government had rejected their OBC certificates, mostly since 2016, treating them as creamy layer because parental income crossed Rs 8 lakh a year; selections were rejected or ranks lowered and services re-allotted. Of 84 candidates tracked, 31 are children of government teachers, 26 of clerical staff and 22 of managerial staff in government organisations. At least 38 of the 56 are serving in lower-ranked services and would move up, some from the IPS to the IAS.

    What is the origin of the creamy-layer doctrine and the income ceiling?

    The creamy-layer doctrine comes from the Indra Sawhney judgment of 1992. The income ceiling for those outside government service was Rs 1 lakh in 1993 and stands at Rs 8 lakh since 2017.

  3. Congo's Ebola outbreak crosses 11,000 cases

    GS-2

    Why in News?

    Congo's Ebola outbreak has crossed 11,000 cases, with 5,387 deaths - nearly half of those infected - making it the country's deadliest outbreak. Health ministry data released on November 11 showed 11,042 infections since the outbreak was declared in mid-May, though evidence suggests infections began months earlier.

    The Bundibugyo virus behind this outbreak has no known vaccine or treatment and has spread to eight of the country's 26 provinces. Containment has been hampered by conflict and a health-system crisis. The outbreak already ranks as the second-largest ever, behind West Africa's 2014-16 epidemic (28,000 cases, more than 11,000 deaths), and has produced at least three times the cases and deaths in the same period.

    Ebola virus, the Bundibugyo strain, the 1976 discovery of the disease.

    global health governance in conflict zones, and the limits of outbreak response where no vaccine exists.

    Congo's Ebola outbreak has crossed 11,000 cases with no vaccine or treatment for the Bundibugyo strain, and containment is hampered by conflict. Critically examine the limits of global health governance and outbreak response in conflict zones. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2015

      In 2015, which countries were most frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus? (a) Syria and Jordan (b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia (c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea (d) Jamaica, Haiti and Suriname

    Frequently Asked Questions

    How large is the Ebola outbreak in Congo?

    Congo's Ebola outbreak has crossed 11,000 cases, with 5,387 deaths, nearly half of those infected, making it the country's deadliest outbreak. Health ministry data released on November 11 showed 11,042 infections since the outbreak was declared in mid-May, though evidence suggests infections began months earlier.

    What is making this outbreak hard to contain?

    The Bundibugyo virus behind this outbreak has no known vaccine or treatment and has spread to eight of the country's 26 provinces. Containment has been hampered by conflict and a health-system crisis. The outbreak already ranks as the second-largest ever, behind West Africa's 2014-16 epidemic (28,000 cases, more than 11,000 deaths), and has produced at least three times the cases and deaths in the same period.

    What is the WHO, and what is its role in such outbreaks?

    The WHO, the World Health Organization, is the United Nations specialised agency for health, directing the global response to health emergencies for 194 member states. It was established on 7 April 1948 and is headquartered in Geneva. Ebola virus disease itself was first discovered in 1976.

GS Paper III

  1. COP31: leaders warn wars must not eclipse climate action; Himalayas kept off the formal agenda

    Must know

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    On the third day of COP31 in Antalya, Turkiye (November 9-20), the leaders of Brazil and Turkey told the summit that wars and trade disputes must not distract the world from the fight against global warming. Brazil's President Lula said momentum from COP30 had dropped off and the planet 'cannot be in the mercy of hegemonic struggles', while UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres warned the climate crisis is 'outrunning us' and the world is on 'a path to mutually assured destruction'.

    Negotiators from nearly 200 countries are working on a Turkish proposal to raise electricity's share of global energy use and revive the stalled move away from fossil fuels. The United States has skipped the talks for a second year, and France, Germany, Japan, Italy and Canada sent no top leaders. Separately, an agenda item on the Himalayas proposed by Nepal, Bhutan and Kyrgyzstan failed to make COP31's formal list after developed countries withheld support, though the presidency has assured that mountain issues will feature in the final outcome text.

    COP31 runs November 9-20, 2026 in Antalya; Turkiye holds the presidency with Australia as president of negotiations; the Paris Agreement's 1.5 degrees Celsius limit.

    climate justice for mountain nations - Nepal's August 2026 glacial-lake floods killed more than 6,500 people - the Loss and Damage Fund's provisional $21.6 million allocation to Nepal, and the politics of agenda-setting at climate summits; India's Himalayan states face the same cryosphere risks.

    The Himalayas were kept off COP31's formal agenda even as Nepal counted more than 6,500 dead from glacial-lake floods. Critically examine the politics of agenda-setting at climate summits and what it means for climate justice for mountain nations, with reference to India's Himalayan states. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2025

      Consider these statements about the Paris Agreement on climate change: Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III: Article 6 intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach climate targets. Which one of the following is correct? (a) Both Statements II and III are correct and both explain Statement I (b) Both Statements II and III are correct but only one explains Statement I (c) Only one of Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Frequently Asked Questions

    When and where is COP31 being held, and who holds the presidency?

    COP31 runs from November 9 to 20, 2026, in Antalya, Turkiye. Turkiye holds the presidency, with Australia as president of negotiations. Negotiators from nearly 200 countries are working on a Turkish proposal to raise electricity's share of global energy use and revive the stalled move away from fossil fuels.

    Why did the Himalayas fail to make COP31's formal agenda?

    An agenda item on the Himalayas proposed by Nepal, Bhutan and Kyrgyzstan failed to make the formal list after developed countries withheld support, though the presidency has assured that mountain issues will feature in the final outcome text. The stakes are stark: Nepal's August 2026 glacial-lake floods killed more than 6,500 people, and the Loss and Damage Fund has made a provisional allocation of $21.6 million to Nepal.

    What is the institutional framework behind the COP process?

    The COP is the supreme decision-making body of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the 1992 treaty adopted at the Rio Earth Summit that entered into force in 1994. The Convention today has 198 parties and its secretariat sits in Bonn, Germany; it sets no binding emission targets itself, with targets coming through later protocols and agreements such as the Paris Agreement, whose limit is 1.5 degrees Celsius.

  2. Cabinet clears Rs 62,370 crore fertiliser subsidy for the rabi season

    Must know

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The Union Cabinet has approved Rs 62,370 crore as subsidy for the rabi season, up 64% from Rs 37,952 crore last year, covering phosphatic and potassic fertilisers including DAP from October 1, 2026 to March 31, 2027. The special provision keeping DAP at Rs 1,350 per bag for farmers will continue.

    The increase follows the war in West Asia, which pushed global fertiliser prices up after the Budget had estimated the full-year subsidy bill at Rs 1.71 lakh crore. The Centre had already spent Rs 1.19 lakh crore - about 70% of the estimate - in the first half of 2026-27. Fertiliser sales have also fallen this year on poor rainfall, with complex fertilisers down 22% and urea down 4%.

    the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme; DAP's fixed price; the rabi season.

    fiscal pressure from subsidy bills, food security versus fiscal consolidation, and how energy shocks transmit into farm input prices.

    The rabi fertiliser subsidy has risen 64% in a year to Rs 62,370 crore as energy shocks feed into farm input prices. Discuss the trade-off between food security and fiscal consolidation, and evaluate how India can insulate farm input prices from external shocks. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2020

      With reference to chemical fertilisers in India, consider these statements: 1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilisers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. 2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. 3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertiliser, is a by-product of oil refineries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What fertiliser subsidy has the Cabinet approved for the rabi season, and what does it cover?

    The Union Cabinet has approved Rs 62,370 crore as subsidy for the rabi season, up 64% from Rs 37,952 crore last year, covering phosphatic and potassic fertilisers including DAP from October 1, 2026 to March 31, 2027. The special provision keeping DAP at Rs 1,350 per bag for farmers will continue.

    Why did the subsidy bill rise so sharply?

    The increase follows the war in West Asia, which pushed global fertiliser prices up after the Budget had estimated the full-year subsidy bill at Rs 1.71 lakh crore. The Centre had already spent Rs 1.19 lakh crore, about 70% of the estimate, in the first half of 2026-27. Fertiliser sales have also fallen this year on poor rainfall, with complex fertilisers down 22% and urea down 4%.

    How do fertiliser subsidies fit into the wider subsidy regime?

    An agricultural subsidy is financial aid given to farmers to raise incomes and secure food security. India runs direct subsidies, which transfer money straight to the farmer, as in PM-KISAN, and indirect subsidies, which lower the farmer's costs instead, as in subsidised urea. The fertiliser subsidy in this story is administered through the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme.

  3. PLI scheme for medical devices extended to 2035-36

    Must know

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The government has invited fresh applications under the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Promoting Domestic Manufacturing of Medical Devices (PLI-MD), extending its tenure to FY 2035-36 and deploying about Rs 2,700 crore of unallocated funds. Launched in FY 2020-21 by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, the scheme rewards incremental sales of domestically made devices and components.

    The extended scheme drops the mandatory minimum-sales threshold and trims minimum investment criteria, with a three-year gestation period to set up facilities. Incentives average about 5% for consumables and implants, 9% for critical components and nascent high-end devices, and 6% for assembled high-end equipment. Four target segments cover consumables and implants, critical components, and high-end devices at nascent or assembly-only stages.

    PLI-MD's four target segments and incentive rates; India imports 75-80% of its high-end medical equipment.

    import dependence in health technology, Make in India in capital-intensive sectors, and MSME participation through components.

    India imports 75-80% of its high-end medical equipment, and the PLI scheme for medical devices has now been extended to 2035-36 with relaxed entry thresholds. Critically evaluate production-linked incentives as a tool for building domestic capability in capital-intensive sectors, with reference to MSME participation. (250 words)

    • BPSC Prelims 2023

      Consider these statements about the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme: 1. The scheme offers a production-linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components. 2. The scheme has two categories of applicants, namely, global companies and domestic companies. 3. The scheme shall extend an average incentive of around 8% on net incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segment, to eligible companies, for a period of six years. 4. The target segment under PLI shall include (i) laptops, (ii) tablets, (iii) all-in-one PCs, (iv) servers and (v) Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF). Which of the above statements are incorrect? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What has changed in the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for medical devices?

    The government has invited fresh applications under the Production Linked Incentive Scheme for Promoting Domestic Manufacturing of Medical Devices (PLI-MD), extending its tenure to FY 2035-36 and deploying about Rs 2,700 crore of unallocated funds. The extended scheme drops the mandatory minimum-sales threshold and trims minimum investment criteria, with a three-year gestation period to set up facilities.

    How do the incentives under PLI-MD work?

    Launched in FY 2020-21 by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, the scheme rewards incremental sales of domestically made devices and components. Incentives average about 5% for consumables and implants, 9% for critical components and nascent high-end devices, and 6% for assembled high-end equipment. Four target segments cover consumables and implants, critical components, and high-end devices at nascent or assembly-only stages.

    Why does India need domestic medical-device manufacturing?

    India imports 75-80% of its high-end medical equipment, so the scheme targets import dependence in health technology, with MSME participation through components.

  4. ISRO's NVS-03 reaches geosynchronous orbit

    Must know

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    ISRO's NVS-03, the third satellite in the next-generation navigation series, has reached its intended geosynchronous orbit after four Liquid Apogee Motor firings. It was launched aboard GSLV-F18 into a transfer orbit on October 30, 2026.

    The 2,250-kg satellite, with a mission life of about 12 years, replenishes the NavIC constellation and replaces ageing satellites. It carries an indigenously developed rubidium atomic clock from the Space Applications Centre, Ahmedabad - ending reliance on imported clocks that failed on early IRNSS satellites - and broadcasts in the L1 civil band alongside the L5 and S bands, so it can work with smartphones, smartwatches and vehicle telematics.

    NavIC (seven satellites - three in geostationary orbit and four in inclined geosynchronous orbit), Standard Positioning Service accuracy under 20 metres, IMO recognition; GSLV-F18.

    strategic autonomy in navigation, indigenisation of atomic clocks, and the civilian uses of the L1 signal.

    NVS-03 carries an indigenously developed rubidium atomic clock, ending reliance on imported clocks that failed on early IRNSS satellites. Discuss strategic autonomy in navigation, the indigenisation of critical space components, and the civilian uses opened up by the L1 signal. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2018

      With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider these statements: 1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring, whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 only

    • UPSC Prelims 2011

      Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: 1. The orbit is geosynchronous. 2. The orbit is circular. 3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth's equator. 4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What is NVS-03, and how did it reach orbit?

    NVS-03 is the third satellite in the next-generation navigation series. It reached its intended geosynchronous orbit after four Liquid Apogee Motor firings, having been launched aboard GSLV-F18 into a transfer orbit on October 30, 2026.

    What does NVS-03 carry, and why does it matter?

    The 2,250-kg satellite, with a mission life of about 12 years, replenishes the NavIC constellation and replaces ageing satellites. It carries an indigenously developed rubidium atomic clock from the Space Applications Centre, Ahmedabad, ending reliance on imported clocks that failed on early IRNSS satellites, and broadcasts in the L1 civil band alongside the L5 and S bands, so it can work with smartphones, smartwatches and vehicle telematics.

    What is NavIC, and how accurate is it?

    NavIC is India's satellite navigation system of seven satellites, three in geostationary orbit and four in inclined geosynchronous orbit. Its Standard Positioning Service accuracy is under 20 metres, and it has IMO recognition. India's space programme began with INCOSPAR in 1962 under Vikram Sarabhai, ISRO was formed in 1969, and Aryabhata, India's first satellite, was launched in 1975.

  5. Lakshadweep and the Andamans anchor India's Blue Economy push

    Must know

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying set out a roadmap on November 10 that places Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands at the centre of India's Blue Economy strategy. The plan is built around high-value tuna, seaweed and ornamental fisheries, backed by ₹393 crore under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana — ₹218 crore for the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and ₹175 crore for Lakshadweep.

    Lakshadweep gets a five-year plan to double its tuna output to about 50,000 tonnes from roughly 25,000, using deep-sea and mother vessels alongside the traditional pole-and-line fishery, plus a dedicated seaweed cluster. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands get a dedicated tuna cluster with on-board processing and freezing, licensing of deep-sea tuna vessels and a single-window clearance run by the island administration. The push follows the Union Budget 2025-26 announcement of a framework for sustainably harnessing the Exclusive Economic Zone and the high seas.

    Conclusion

    The stakes are economic as much as strategic. India harvests only a small share of the tuna in its own waters, with most of the catch taken by foreign fleets, so moving from raw exports to processing and value addition could lift incomes for nearly 50 lakh fishers. But the same islands hold fragile coral lagoons and sit on vital sea lanes, so the test will be whether growth stays within ecological limits — the classic mains tension between development and conservation in island territories.

    India's EEZ spans about 24 lakh sq km, with the Andaman and Nicobar Islands holding about 6.6 lakh sq km and Lakshadweep about 4 lakh; marine fisheries potential is estimated at 58.6 lakh tonnes and the coastline at 11,099 km including the islands. Seafood exports were about ₹73,890 crore in FY 2025-26. PMMSY was launched in 2020. Barren Island in the Andamans is India's only active volcano; the Nine Degree Channel separates Lakshadweep from Minicoy, the Ten Degree Channel lies between Little Andaman and Car Nicobar, and the Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the Maldives. Port Blair was renamed Sri Vijaya Puram in 2024.

    Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are now the centre of India's Blue Economy push, built on tuna, seaweed and processing. Examine the classic mains tension between development and conservation in island territories, and assess whether value addition can raise fisher incomes within ecological limits. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2022

      With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, consider these statements: 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from the baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What is the Blue Economy roadmap announced for the islands?

    The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying set out a roadmap on November 10 that places Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands at the centre of India's Blue Economy strategy. The plan is built around high-value tuna, seaweed and ornamental fisheries, backed by Rs 393 crore under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana, Rs 218 crore for the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Rs 175 crore for Lakshadweep.

    What will each island group get under the plan?

    Lakshadweep gets a five-year plan to double its tuna output to about 50,000 tonnes from roughly 25,000, using deep-sea and mother vessels alongside the traditional pole-and-line fishery, plus a dedicated seaweed cluster. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands get a dedicated tuna cluster with on-board processing and freezing, licensing of deep-sea tuna vessels and a single-window clearance run by the island administration.

    What are the stakes and the scale of India's marine economy?

    India harvests only a small share of the tuna in its own waters, with most of the catch taken by foreign fleets, so moving from raw exports to processing and value addition could lift incomes for nearly 50 lakh fishers. India's EEZ spans about 24 lakh sq km, with the Andaman and Nicobar Islands holding about 6.6 lakh sq km and Lakshadweep about 4 lakh; marine fisheries potential is estimated at 58.6 lakh tonnes, the coastline is 11,099 km including the islands, and seafood exports were about Rs 73,890 crore in FY 2025-26. PMMSY was launched in 2020. The push follows the Union Budget 2025-26 announcement of a framework for sustainably harnessing the Exclusive Economic Zone and the high seas, but the islands hold fragile coral lagoons and sit on vital sea lanes.

  6. CRPF drafts specs for fibre-optic kamikaze drones

    Must know

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The Central Reserve Police Force has circulated draft Qualitative Requirements and Trial Directives for first-person-view kamikaze drones that fly on fibre-optic cable plus radio frequency, seeking technical inputs from manufacturers and vendors by November 25, 2026. The draft, issued on November 5, runs to more than 50 specifications.

    The aircraft is a loitering munition: it flies to a designated objective, streams live video back to its operator, and destroys itself on impact. The draft demands a minimum speed of 150 kmph with full payload, a mission range of at least 15 km, and a total weight of no more than 7 kg including the fibre spool, battery and warhead. It must stay airborne for at least 30 minutes at 1,000 metres above mean sea level without the warhead and spool, land vertically inside a 5-by-5-metre box, and come in separate day and night variants carrying high-explosive anti-personnel warheads with a killing radius of at least 10 metres.

    The design is shaped by the way FPV drones have been used in recent conflicts, and by the CRPF's own needs: precision strikes against insurgents and terrorists with minimal collateral risk. The fibre-optic link cannot be jammed, while the radio link gives range flexibility — the two control modes are complementary rather than competing. The likely users are the CoBRA battalions raised in 2008 for anti-Naxal operations, and procurement follows trials against these QRs, with indigenisation an implicit goal. The mains question is the balance between capability and safeguards as loitering munitions move from battlefields into internal security.

    the CRPF is the largest central armed police force and works under the Ministry of Home Affairs; CoBRA was raised in 2008. A loitering munition combines a UAV with a precision-guided munition in a one-way strike; fibre-optic control resists jamming because the signal travels through a spooled hair-thin cable rather than the air. The draft requires vendor responses by November 25, 2026, through the CRPF Communication Directorate in New Delhi.

    Loitering munitions are moving from battlefields into internal security, with the CRPF drafting specifications for fibre-optic kamikaze drones for its CoBRA battalions. Examine the balance between capability and safeguards as such weapons enter counter-insurgency operations, including questions of proportionality, accountability and indigenisation. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2025

      With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider these statements: 1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. 2. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. 3. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None

    • UPSC Prelims 2020

      Consider the following activities: 1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field 2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes 3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis. At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What has the CRPF circulated, and by when are inputs due?

    The Central Reserve Police Force has circulated draft Qualitative Requirements and Trial Directives for first-person-view kamikaze drones that fly on fibre-optic cable plus radio frequency, seeking technical inputs from manufacturers and vendors by November 25, 2026. The draft, issued on November 5, runs to more than 50 specifications.

    What must the drone be able to do?

    The aircraft is a loitering munition: it flies to a designated objective, streams live video back to its operator, and destroys itself on impact. The draft demands a minimum speed of 150 kmph with full payload, a mission range of at least 15 km, and a total weight of no more than 7 kg including the fibre spool, battery and warhead. It must stay airborne for at least 30 minutes at 1,000 metres above mean sea level without the warhead and spool, land vertically inside a 5-by-5-metre box, and come in separate day and night variants carrying high-explosive anti-personnel warheads with a killing radius of at least 10 metres.

    Why fibre-optic control, and who will use these drones?

    The fibre-optic link cannot be jammed, while the radio link gives range flexibility, so the two control modes are complementary rather than competing. The design is shaped by the way FPV drones have been used in recent conflicts, and by the CRPF's need for precision strikes against insurgents and terrorists with minimal collateral risk. The likely users are the CoBRA battalions raised in 2008 for anti-Naxal operations; procurement follows trials against these QRs, with indigenisation an implicit goal. Left-wing extremism is the Maoist-led armed insurgency that takes its name from Naxalbari, the West Bengal village where a peasant uprising began in 1967.

  7. Stand-Up India and the Mudra guarantee fund extended for five years

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The Cabinet has also extended the Stand-Up India Scheme and the Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU) for five years, until March 2031. Stand-Up India gets a corpus of Rs 4,111 crore; CGFMU gets Rs 5,000 crore to back loans extended under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana.

    Stand-Up India, launched in April 2016, promotes entrepreneurship among women and Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe borrowers and has reached more than 2.75 lakh entrepreneurs. CGFMU, launched in January 2016, guarantees Mudra loans; over 60.36 crore Mudra loans worth Rs 43.34 lakh crore have been sanctioned since the scheme began.

    Stand-Up India (2016), CGFMU, PMMY and the credit-guarantee mechanism.

    financial inclusion, collateral-free lending to first-generation entrepreneurs, and the fiscal cost of guarantee funds.

    Collateral-free lending through Stand-Up India and the Mudra guarantee fund has been extended to 2031 with a combined corpus of over Rs 9,000 crore. Assess the role of credit guarantees in financial inclusion for first-generation entrepreneurs, and the fiscal risks such guarantees carry. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2016

      The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is chiefly aimed at: (a) Bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system (b) Providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops (c) Providing pensions to old and destitute persons (d) Funding voluntary organisations involved in promoting skill development and employment generation

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What has the Cabinet extended, and for how long?

    The Cabinet has extended the Stand-Up India Scheme and the Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU) for five years, until March 2031. Stand-Up India gets a corpus of Rs 4,111 crore; CGFMU gets Rs 5,000 crore to back loans extended under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana.

    Who does Stand-Up India serve, and what has it achieved?

    Stand-Up India, launched in April 2016, promotes entrepreneurship among women and Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe borrowers and has reached more than 2.75 lakh entrepreneurs.

    What is the scale of Mudra lending that CGFMU guarantees?

    CGFMU, launched in January 2016, guarantees Mudra loans; over 60.36 crore Mudra loans worth Rs 43.34 lakh crore have been sanctioned since the scheme began.

  8. India bans export of lithium-ion battery 'black mass'

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The government has banned the export of lithium-ion battery black mass and related battery waste with immediate effect. A November 10 notification by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade moved the export policy for this waste from 'Free' to 'Prohibited'.

    Black mass is the powder left after spent lithium-ion batteries are broken down; besides lithium it holds cobalt, nickel, manganese, graphite and other critical minerals that can be recovered and reused in new batteries. The ban follows the Cabinet's Rs 2,814 crore scheme for critical mineral processing and aims to keep feedstock at home for domestic recyclers - 57 registered recyclers have combined capacity of 5.17 lakh tonnes a year, though black-mass processing capacity is only about 75,500 tonnes.

    black mass, DGFT, critical minerals, the Battery Waste Extended Producer Responsibility portal.

    the circular economy for batteries, import dependence - India's entire lithium demand is met through imports - and the gap between recycling ambition and refining capacity.

    India has banned the export of lithium-ion battery 'black mass' to feed domestic recyclers, yet its black-mass processing capacity is only about 75,500 tonnes against 5.17 lakh tonnes of recycling capacity, and all lithium demand is imported. Examine the promise and limits of a circular economy for batteries in reducing critical-mineral dependence. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2025

      In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: 1. Cobalt 2. Graphite 3. Lithium 4. Nickel. How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

    • UPSC Prelims 2025

      Consider these statements: 1. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. 2. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. 3. Parliament in 2023 amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licences for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What is 'black mass' and what has the government done about it?

    Black mass is the powder left after spent lithium-ion batteries are broken down; besides lithium it holds cobalt, nickel, manganese, graphite and other critical minerals that can be recovered and reused in new batteries. A November 10 notification by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade moved the export policy for this waste from 'Free' to 'Prohibited', banning its export with immediate effect.

    Why has the export ban been imposed?

    The ban follows the Cabinet's Rs 2,814 crore scheme for critical mineral processing and aims to keep feedstock at home for domestic recyclers. There are 57 registered recyclers with combined capacity of 5.17 lakh tonnes a year, though black-mass processing capacity is only about 75,500 tonnes.

    How import-dependent is India for lithium?

    India's entire lithium demand is met through imports, which is why the circular economy for batteries and the gap between recycling ambition and refining capacity are central to this decision.

  9. CERT-In issues AI security auditing guidelines for agentic AI

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) has released AI Security Auditing Guidelines - a framework for secure, ethical and auditable AI systems - aimed at autonomous, 'agentic' AI that can plan, decide and execute multi-step tasks with limited human oversight.

    The guidelines flag risks such as privilege abuse, unauthorised tool use, credential misuse, memory manipulation, data leakage and unsafe delegation between agents. They require access-control testing, a unique authenticated identity for every agent, full audit trails of requests, decisions and tools used, emergency controls to suspend agents and revoke credentials, and an inventory of models, training data and external tools. AI-generated outputs cannot substitute for audit evidence or professional judgment.

    CERT-In, established in 2004 under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, with statutory basis in Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000; agentic AI.

    governing autonomous AI in government and industry, and the auditability problem as AI agents gain tool access.

    CERT-In's new guidelines require every AI agent to have a unique authenticated identity, full audit trails and emergency suspension controls. Examine the auditability problem as autonomous AI agents gain tool access in government and industry, and assess whether audit frameworks can keep pace with agentic AI. (250 words)

    • UPSC Prelims 2017

      In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. Body corporate. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What are the new CERT-In guidelines about?

    The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) has released AI Security Auditing Guidelines, a framework for secure, ethical and auditable AI systems, aimed at autonomous, 'agentic' AI that can plan, decide and execute multi-step tasks with limited human oversight.

    What risks and controls do the guidelines identify?

    The guidelines flag risks such as privilege abuse, unauthorised tool use, credential misuse, memory manipulation, data leakage and unsafe delegation between agents. They require access-control testing, a unique authenticated identity for every agent, full audit trails of requests, decisions and tools used, emergency controls to suspend agents and revoke credentials, and an inventory of models, training data and external tools. AI-generated outputs cannot substitute for audit evidence or professional judgment.

    What is CERT-In, and what is its legal basis?

    CERT-In was established in 2004 under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, with statutory basis in Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000. It is the national incident-response agency, with a 6-hour breach-reporting rule.

  10. DeepMind's AI formally verifies Signal's encryption

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    Google DeepMind used its agentic AI framework, AlphaProof Code, to formally verify key cryptographic guarantees in Signal's underlying encryption protocol - a four-week proof-of-concept that found no new vulnerabilities in the portions analysed.

    The work is a milestone because formal verification - mathematically proving software behaves as specified - is usually slow manual work; AI agents could compress it dramatically. The Signal protocol also underpins WhatsApp, Facebook Messenger and Google Messages. DeepMind has released its specification and proof to aid further verification work, though the analysis covered only parts of the protocol, not the full app, and older versions of Signal had flaws that were already known and patched.

    end-to-end encryption, the Signal protocol, formal verification.

    AI as both a security threat and a security tool, and the governance questions around automated verification of critical software.

    AI has now been used to formally verify the encryption protocol behind Signal, WhatsApp and other messengers, yet only parts of the protocol were covered. Discuss AI as both a security threat and a security tool, and the governance questions around automated verification of critical software. (250 words)

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What did Google DeepMind do with Signal's encryption?

    Google DeepMind used its agentic AI framework, AlphaProof Code, to formally verify key cryptographic guarantees in Signal's underlying encryption protocol, in a four-week proof-of-concept that found no new vulnerabilities in the portions analysed.

    What is formal verification, and why is this a milestone?

    Formal verification means mathematically proving that software behaves as specified. It is usually slow manual work, so AI agents could compress it dramatically. The Signal protocol also underpins WhatsApp, Facebook Messenger and Google Messages.

    What are the limits of this verification?

    DeepMind has released its specification and proof to aid further verification work, but the analysis covered only parts of the protocol, not the full app, and older versions of Signal had flaws that were already known and patched.

  11. Annual Survey of Industries 2024-25: corporate manufacturing GVA up 9.28%

    GS-3

    Why in News?

    The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has released the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) 2024-25, covering 86,547 sampled units from a frame of 2,68,778 establishments for the year April 2024 to March 2025. The survey is conducted by the National Statistical Office under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008.

    Corporate manufacturing accounted for over 89% of manufacturing GVA and grew 9.28%, with operating factories up 3.45% and persons engaged up 7.57%. The top five states by GVA - Maharashtra (15.92%), Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh - hold over 54% of the total; Tamil Nadu leads employment with 31.4 lakh workers. Small factories (plant and machinery up to Rs 5 crore) are 78.69% of units and employ 34.32% of workers but generate only 17.61% of net value added.

    ASI, MoSPI, NSO; the top states and industries - basic metals, motor vehicles, chemicals, pharmaceuticals and food products.

    the scale-productivity divide in Indian manufacturing and the employment question behind the GVA numbers.

    ASI 2024-25 shows corporate manufacturing GVA up 9.28% while small factories, nearly 79% of units, generate under 18% of net value added. Examine the scale-productivity divide in Indian manufacturing and the employment question behind the GVA numbers. (250 words)

    Frequently Asked Questions

    What is the Annual Survey of Industries, and what did the 2024-25 round cover?

    The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) 2024-25 was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, covering 86,547 sampled units from a frame of 2,68,778 establishments for the year April 2024 to March 2025. The survey is conducted by the National Statistical Office under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008.

    What are the headline findings of ASI 2024-25?

    Corporate manufacturing accounted for over 89% of manufacturing GVA and grew 9.28%, with operating factories up 3.45% and persons engaged up 7.57%. The top five states by GVA, Maharashtra (15.92%), Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh, hold over 54% of the total; Tamil Nadu leads employment with 31.4 lakh workers.

    What does the survey show about small factories?

    Small factories (plant and machinery up to Rs 5 crore) are 78.69% of units and employ 34.32% of workers but generate only 17.61% of net value added, illustrating the scale-productivity divide in Indian manufacturing. The top industries are basic metals, motor vehicles, chemicals, pharmaceuticals and food products.