Polity PYQs

‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India: Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

Consider the following statements : Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to person being held for preventive detention 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporates against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are, correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India is a provision made in the

Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

Consider the following: 1. Right to education 2. Right to equal access to public service 3. Right to food Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages is it entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

Constitutional government means:

Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

A constitutional government by definition is a

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People’s responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

Out of the’ ‘following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :

‘Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

Which one of the following statements is correct?

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which: 1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority. 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following statements : 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?4

With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission from the President of India. 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment, as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens? 1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000 4. All Senior Citizens Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following statements: 1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

In India, Judicial Review implies

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in?

With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements : 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory 4. A dispute between two or more States Select the correct answer using the code given below:

What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? 1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements : The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact 1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest). 2. if he seeks such an advice. 3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

Consider the following statements : 1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President ot India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State. 2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?

Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court. 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function 2. executive function Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: (1) The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country (2) The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the?

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

Economic Justice’ as one of objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 2. Organizing village Panchayats 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 4. Securing for all workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India ?

Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India: 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the (President’s) decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

Consider the following statements: 1.The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2.The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?

Consider the following languages: 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada 3. Telugu Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government? Select the correct answer using the code given below.:

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days of that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an Adjournment Motion is:

Consider the following statements: 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha. 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes. 3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1.N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State. 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings. 2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees. 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Consider the following statements : 1. The Council of Ministers in the centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? (1). Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. (2). Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. (3). Cabinet is headed by the head of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary. 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only. 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18. 2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

Consider the following statements about provisions pertaining to SC/STs in India: 1. Provisions for Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are in the Fifth Schedule. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to SCs and STs.

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule: I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration. II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements : 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statemnents are correct?

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ?

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?

Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

Consider the following statements: 1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? (1) People’s participation in development (2) Political accountability (3) Democratic decentralization (4) Financial mobilization Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee 1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India. 2. prepares the draft development plans for the metropolitan area. 3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all Panchayat elections. 3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following:

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization: Some of its functions: It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division–I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

Consider the following statements about Lokpal: I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members: 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

The Government of India has established NITI Aayoga to replace the

Consider the following statements : 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (1). National Development Council (2). Planning Commission (3). Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? (1). The Prime Minister (2). The Chairman, Finance Commission (3). Ministers of the Union Cabinet (4). Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

With reference to organisations under the Government of India: Sl. No.Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry 1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs 2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance 3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below:

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A Bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A Private Member’s Bill is a Bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a Private Member’s Bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation. 2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which was not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dIssolution of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

When a bill is reffered to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

What will follow if a Money Bill substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of 1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitutional Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

Consider the following statements: 1.In India, there is no law restricting candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 2.In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a ‘ five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State. 2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age.

Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below:

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

Consider the following statements : 1. A Bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

Consider the following statements : (1). An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. (2). If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of

Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

Consider the following statements: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh. 2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

Consider the following statements : (1) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. (2) The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. (3) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements : (1) The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State. (2) The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to Parliament, consider the following statements; 1.The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2.While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following : 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent (2) It has made recommondations concerning sector-specific grants Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? 1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design. 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend. 3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements : (1) The department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament. (2) No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India. (3) All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament. 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill. 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account. 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programmes of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office. 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below:

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the constitution of delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

Consider the following statements : The Parliamentary Committe on Public Accounts 1. Consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha 2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government 3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/ her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the (then) Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration: 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Regarding the Office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism ?

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

Which was the Capital of Andhra state when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases. 2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/ reconciliators. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ?

With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements: 1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a degree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court. 2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Loksabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajyasabha Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Consider the following statements : Attorney General of India can

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list: List-I (Person) and List-II (Position): A. Nagender Singh - 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India B. A. N. Ray - 2. President, International Court of Justice C. R.K. Trivedi - 3. Chief Justice of India D. Ashok Desai - 4. Attorney General of India.

Consider the following statements: 1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India. 2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1.There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2.A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3.A foreigner, once granted citizenship, cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)? 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency. 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. 3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Consider the following pairs: State Description I. Arunachal Pradesh The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amend- ment Act III. Tripura Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements : 1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri. 2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below:

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below: